1 votes 1 votes Is this solution right? how can the assume buffer latency to be 1? and isn't the latency of pipeline = cycle time CO and Architecture co-and-architecture pipelining virtual-gate-test-series + – Pankaj Joshi asked Jan 13, 2017 • edited Apr 14, 2019 by Lakshman Bhaiya Pankaj Joshi 242 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes it seems like a ambiguous question ...by the way if nothing is said about buffer delays it should assumed to be zero sachin486 answered Jul 30, 2020 sachin486 comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.