0 votes 0 votes There is a function f(x), such that f(0) = 1 and f ' (0)= -1 and f(x) is positive for all values of x. Then, a) f"(x) < 0 for all x b) -1 < f'' (x) < 0 for all x c) -2 < f '' (x) < -1 for all x d) None of the above Calculus isro-ece engineering-mathematics calculus + – sh!va asked Mar 1, 2017 • recategorized Mar 9, 2019 by Naveen Kumar 3 sh!va 427 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Take an example, f(x) = x2 - x + 1 so from this example we get f'''(x) = 2. So D) none of these is answer Rahul Jain25 answered Mar 5, 2017 Rahul Jain25 comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply Akriti sood commented Mar 6, 2017 reply Follow Share any other way of solving?? 0 votes 0 votes Rahul Jain25 commented Mar 6, 2017 reply Follow Share I know this method only. But it was simple bcoz f(0) =1 means function is f(x)= something + 1. Then it was given f'(0)=-1 which means function can bef(x)= something -x + 1 and to contradict options I took x2. Somebody post other answer if there is some theorem or method for this question. 1 votes 1 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes since f’(x)= -1. so the value of f’’(x) will be equal to 0. so the given option d is correct. shuham kumar answered Sep 20, 2022 shuham kumar comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.