0 votes 0 votes Please explain this question: n!=O(nn). How has the above value come? Algorithms asymptotic-notation + – Devshree Dubey asked Apr 8, 2017 • edited Jun 18, 2022 by makhdoom ghaya Devshree Dubey 1.2k views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
2 votes 2 votes It's simple n! = n*(n-1)*(n-2)*...*1 < n*n*n..*n i.e n^n Inequality is always valid since factorial is defined for non negative integers Digvijaysingh Gour answered Apr 8, 2017 • edited Apr 9, 2017 by Digvijaysingh Gour Digvijaysingh Gour comment Share Follow See 1 comment See all 1 1 comment reply Devshree Dubey commented Apr 8, 2017 reply Follow Share Thank u. :) 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
