0 votes 0 votes Will it be 0 ? Anyone explain please Aspirant asked Apr 14, 2017 Aspirant 245 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes yes I think because if x,y->0 then f(x,y)=0. Purvi Agrawal answered Apr 15, 2017 Purvi Agrawal comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.