180 views

1 Answer

0 votes
0 votes
suppose r be an equivalence relation { (a,a), (a,b),(b,a),(b,c),(a,c),(c,b),(c,a)} nw  for r^(-1) to be  an equivalence relation (a,a) belongs to inverse r  since (a,a) belongs to r . nw for symmetric relation (a,b) belongs to r (b,a) belongs to  inverse r  as well (a,b) also belong s to inverse r . similarly (b,a) and (a,c) belongs to inverse r hence (b,c) as well hence we can say inverse of r is also an equivalence relation .

Related questions

0 votes
0 votes
0 answers
1
Markzuck asked Jan 10, 2019
3,254 views
How to take composition of a Relation? here used concept of function but when to go with the transitivity rule concept as mentioned below?Please clarify in general when t...
0 votes
0 votes
0 answers
3
Jaspreet Kaur Bains asked Dec 21, 2017
161 views
Consider the set S = {a, b} and ‘L’ be a binary relation such that L = {all binary relations except reflexive relation set S}. The number of relation which are symmet...
0 votes
0 votes
0 answers
4
Jaspreet Kaur Bains asked Dec 21, 2017
298 views
Consider the set S = {a, b} and ‘L’ be a binary relation such that L = {all binary relations except reflexive relation set S}. The number of relation which are symmet...