1 votes 1 votes Let f(x)=x−(1/2) and A denote the area of region bounded by f(x) and the x-axis, when x varies from -1 to 1. A is nonzero and finite?? Calculus engineering-mathematics integration + – Shubhanshu asked Sep 8, 2017 • edited Sep 8, 2017 by Shubhanshu Shubhanshu 852 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 votes 1 votes yes it is Sayan Ghosh answered Oct 14, 2017 Sayan Ghosh comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply rahul saxena commented Oct 14, 2017 reply Follow Share Sayan Ghosh, Can you provide some explanation? Are you getting the final area as 2(1-i) ? I calculated it by integrating in the range of -1 to 1. Is it the correct method? 0 votes 0 votes Sayan Ghosh commented Oct 15, 2017 reply Follow Share Actually the answer is Area is non zero and finite because Area can never be zero but integration can be zero.(The difference as i have read in a prev gate question is that Area we take the positive summation only but for integration the summation can be -ve or +ve ( like in graph of x3 over -1 to 1 etc) ) .Hence, i said yes because he didn't ask for the actual sum.Coming to the actual sum, sqrt(x) is not defined from -1 to 0 hence unless we use complex values.But yes, if u use complex number then as you said the answer is coming 2(1-i). 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.