Question Determine whether the following function from R to R is a bijection
f(x) = $\frac{(x+1)}{(x+2)}$
Solution:
First of all, this is not a function because f(-2) is not defined.
So, if the domain of the function is R - {-2} then this function is one-to-one.
And, if co-domain of this function is R - {1} then this function is onto.
So, the given function is bijection but with two above mentioned conditions. can someone please confirm?