1 votes 1 votes Vaijenath Biradar asked Aug 22, 2015 Vaijenath Biradar 2.7k views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
3 votes 3 votes Nothing will be common in P(A) and P(P(A)). It is Phi. Digvijay Pandey answered Aug 22, 2015 Digvijay Pandey comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply Arjun commented Aug 23, 2015 reply Follow Share Is this the case for any set A? 0 votes 0 votes MaheshK commented Aug 23, 2015 reply Follow Share P(A)={ PHI,{A},{B},{A,B} } and P(P(A)) ={ PHI, {{A}},...., {{A},{B}}, .......} ie.P(A) contains set of sets.P(P(A)) contains set of set of sets. Therefore only PHI(empty set) will be common. P.S:P(A) is a set of all subsets of A.You can recursively extend this definition. @Arjun: yes. 2 votes 2 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.