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J K Qn Qn+1
0 0 0 0
0 0 1 1
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 0
1 0 0 1
1 0 1 1
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0

Solve By K-Map gives

 Qn+1=J.Q’n+K’.Qn

Answer B

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