6 votes 6 votes Find the memory address of the next instruction executed by the microprocessor $(8086),$ when operated in real mode for $\textsf{CS=1000}$ and $\textsf{IP=E000}$ $\textsf{10E00}$ $\textsf{1E000}$ $\textsf{F000}$ $\textsf{1000E}$ CO and Architecture isro2011 co-and-architecture non-gate 8086 microprocessors + – go_editor asked Jun 22, 2016 edited Dec 4, 2022 by Lakshman Bhaiya go_editor 7.7k views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
10 votes 10 votes In 8086 the address bus is 20 bit, The address is generated by using segment base and offset. i.e. Address = segment*0x10 + Offset (Here segment is multiplied by 10h) Given : Segment base (CS) = 0x1000 and Offset (IP) = 0xE000 Therefore, Address = CS*0x10 + IP = 0x1000*0x10 + 0xE000 =0x1E000 Hence answer is 0x1E000 i.e. option B For reference: https://books.google.co.in/books?id=t9ka7wmt_PQC&pg=RA1-PA20&lpg=RA1-PA20&dq=find+address+of+next+instruction+in+8086&source=bl&ots=NU6tKxh094&sig=vn0J3cafQu8UsBeZtUZYg94FQUE&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjPjOTo1dHNAhUIRo8KHV-zAxEQ6AEIQTAG#v=onepage&q=find%20address%20of%20next%20instruction%20in%208086&f=false dkvg1892 answered Jul 1, 2016 dkvg1892 comment Share Follow See all 3 Comments See all 3 3 Comments reply A_i_$_h commented Jun 29, 2017 reply Follow Share Find the memory address of the next instruction executed by the microprocessor (8085), when operated in real mode for base segment =800 and offset is=E000. 0 votes 0 votes Sumaiya23 commented Apr 11, 2018 reply Follow Share Why is segment multiplied by 10h? 0 votes 0 votes `JEET commented Jan 7, 2020 reply Follow Share How the above calculation is done? 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 votes 1 votes Given: cs=1000 and Ip=E000 as per the architecture diagram of 8086 ie.,cs+Ip Ip=E000(ie.,binary code for E=1110) so =1000+E000 =1000+1110 000 =1111000(ie.,the BCD value of F=1111) Ans=F000 so option (c) is correct jaiganeshcse94 answered Jun 26, 2016 jaiganeshcse94 comment Share Follow See 1 comment See all 1 1 comment reply Manjunath commented Jan 24, 2017 reply Follow Share if we convert E000 to binary then answer is 1000+1110 0000 0000 0000 = 1110 0000 0000 1000 =E008 so this is not the option, so F000 is wrong 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.