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+2 votes
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asked in DS by Veteran (10.2k points)   | 114 views

1 Answer

+3 votes

Binomial trials

Here we require exactly k success where probability of success is 1/n and of failure is 1-1/n. So

Pr = nCk (1/n)^k(1-1/n)^(n-k)

So option b is correct

 

answered by Junior (777 points)  
I got the same answer but given in key is A.
Thanks.


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