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+2 votes

Consider a function f:A->B is bijective ..which of the following is INCORRECT?

a)f-1 :B->A exist

b)f-1 : B->A unique

c)f-1 is bijective

d) None of these

asked in Set Theory & Algebra by Veteran (18.2k points)   | 111 views
Answer is D.

for inverse to hold a function should be bijective.

So here (a) is correct....

likewise (b) and (c) are also properties of an inverse can look up any standard textbook..
Change your comment to answer @Aditya Tewari

1 Answer

+4 votes
Best answer

If function is bijective then it is one to one and onto . 

Function is invertable it is bijective. so inverse is possible.

Function is one to one and onto means bumber of element is same in A and B  since one to one inverse also one to one so unique.

Inverse of bijective funtion is bijective always.


answered by Veteran (44.8k points)  
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