2 votes 2 votes when ∀xP(x) --> Q(x) is given does it mean (∀xP(x)) --> Q(x) or it means ∀x(P(x) --> Q(x))? in short precedence of quantifiers is greater or implies is greater? Mathematical Logic mathematical-logic first-order-logic + – Anusha Motamarri asked Nov 7, 2016 Anusha Motamarri 416 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
4 votes 4 votes All quantifiers have higher precedence than logical operators. So (∀xP(x)) --> Q(x) is correct Veerendra V answered Nov 7, 2016 Veerendra V comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
