1 votes 1 votes focus _GATE asked Jun 4, 2015 focus _GATE 1.2k views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Nothing unusual happens cartesian product will be the result Bhagirathi answered Jun 4, 2015 Bhagirathi comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes if we apply cartesian product on same relation then we cannot identify the attributes so first we apply rename operation then we will apply carteian product on same relation saket nandan answered Jun 27, 2015 saket nandan comment Share Follow See all 4 Comments See all 4 4 Comments reply focus _GATE commented Jun 27, 2015 reply Follow Share relation can be different or same but question says in any TWO RELATION IF ATTRIBUTES NAME ARE SAME THAN WHAT WILL HAPPEN????? rt? 0 votes 0 votes Arjun commented Jun 27, 2015 reply Follow Share they will be implicitly renamed. 0 votes 0 votes focus _GATE commented Jun 27, 2015 reply Follow Share sir i did n't get .?? provide some link to read concept 0 votes 0 votes Arjun commented Jun 27, 2015 reply Follow Share Actually cartesian product cannot be applied like that. But cross join can. Ref 1: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/21647379/what-happens-when-cartesian-product-is-applied-to-relations-with-same-attribute Ref 2: http://www.w3resource.com/sql/joins/cross-join.php 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
