GATE CSE 2009 | Question: 7, ISRO2015-3
in Digital Logic
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20 votes
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How many 32K $\times$ 1 RAM chips are needed to provide a memory capacity of 256K-bytes?

  1. 8
  2. 32
  3. 64
  4. 128
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How did you guess that the 32K x 1 chips has size in bits and not bytes??
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4 Answers

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33 votes
 
Best answer

Answer is : (c) 64

Total number of RAM chips

$$\begin{align*}&= \frac{\text{Total size}}{\text{1 RAM size}} \\
&=\frac{256 \text{ K-bytes}}{ 32 \times 1} \\
&= \frac{2^8 \times 2^{10} \times 2^3}{ 2^5\times 2^{10}}\\
&=  2^6 = 64 \end{align*}$$

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3 Comments

moved by
C) 64
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$32K \times 1$ RAM

Is specifying no unit a new standard? or "$\times 1$" is a new notation for "bits"? Any link / wiki explaining this new notation?
To me "$32K\times 1$ RAM" looks like a printing mistake. How one is supposed to decode it straight that it means 32Kbits without having any doubt?
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@GateAspirant999 even I would like to know, whether this is a new standard?

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12 votes
12 votes
answer - C

(256K x 8) / (32K x 1) = 64
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4 votes
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total number of RAM chip = Total size /1 RAM size
                                       =256K bytes/ 32*1
                                       = 2210 *23/ 25*210

                                       =  26 = 64
Option C

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5 Comments

You should convert byte to bit.. Answer should be 8 * 8 = 64
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oh yah i forgot!yes

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Is there any reason, why should we convert byte into bit?
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I am also confused as 32k * 1 should mean 32k addresses each 1 byte, as a system is byte addresable?
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Did u get the answer of multiplying by 8
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2 votes
2 votes

Answer is : (c) 64

Explanation: We need 256 Kbytes, i.e., 256 x 1024 x 8 bits.
We have RAM chips of capacity 32 Kbits = 32 x 1024 bits.
(256 * 1024 * 8)/(32 * 1024) = 64 chips

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How can we know that RAM capacity is given in bits or bytes.

They have just written 32k *1

Help....
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Answer:

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