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+12 votes
4.6k views

How many 32K $\times$ 1 RAM chips are needed to provide a memory capacity of 256K-bytes?

  1. 8
  2. 32
  3. 64
  4. 128
asked in Digital Logic by Veteran (59.5k points) | 4.6k views

4 Answers

+19 votes
Best answer

Answer is : (c) 64

Total number of RAM chips

$$\begin{align*}&= \frac{\text{Total size}}{\text{1 RAM size}} \\
&=\frac{256 \text{ K-bytes}}{ 32 \times 1} \\
&= \frac{2^8 \times 2^{10} \times 2^3}{ 2^5\times 2^{10}}\\
&=  2^6 = 64 \end{align*}$$

answered by Loyal (8.6k points)
selected by
+3
$32K \times 1$ RAM

Is specifying no unit a new standard? or "$\times 1$" is a new notation for "bits"? Any link / wiki explaining this new notation?
To me "$32K\times 1$ RAM" looks like a printing mistake. How one is supposed to decode it straight that it means 32Kbits without having any doubt?
+10 votes
answer - C

(256K x 8) / (32K x 1) = 64
answered by Loyal (9k points)
+4 votes

total number of RAM chip = Total size /1 RAM size
                                       =256K bytes/ 32*1
                                       = 2210 *23/ 25*210

                                       =  26 = 64
Option C

answered by Boss (15.8k points)
0
You should convert byte to bit.. Answer should be 8 * 8 = 64
0

oh yah i forgot!yes

+1
Is there any reason, why should we convert byte into bit?
+1
I am also confused as 32k * 1 should mean 32k addresses each 1 byte, as a system is byte addresable?
0
Did u get the answer of multiplying by 8
0 votes

Answer is : (c) 64

Explanation: We need 256 Kbytes, i.e., 256 x 1024 x 8 bits.
We have RAM chips of capacity 32 Kbits = 32 x 1024 bits.
(256 * 1024 * 8)/(32 * 1024) = 64 chips

answered by Active (3.5k points)


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