1 votes 1 votes radha gogia asked Aug 9, 2015 radha gogia 5.4k views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 1 votes 1 votes let the CP be 100 gain% =17% gain = gain %/100 *100 =17/100*100 gain=17 Sp-Cp=gain sp-100=17 SP=17+100 SP=117 discount= 10% of MP let MP be x 10/100x=1/10x discount =1/10x SP=MP-discount 117=x-1x/10 10x/10 - 1x/10=117 9x/10=117 9x=117*10 x=1170/9 x=MP=130 MP-CP=difference between both 130-100= 30 convert the difference into percent difference/CP*100 30/100*100 30% therefore, the MP is 30% above the CP. ayeshan answered Dec 13, 2015 • selected Dec 13, 2015 by radha gogia ayeshan comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
3 votes 3 votes ans is 30% . let us suppose c.p.=100 so after discount he sold at 117 so that he gets 17% profit now let us suppose x is the marked price so as per question x-x/10=117=>x=130 now without discount profit would have been (130-100)*100/100=30% Sanjay Sharma answered Aug 11, 2015 Sanjay Sharma comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.