0 votes 0 votes Is there a one to one correspondence between problems and languages? we interchangeably use these while discussing decidabilility and turing machines Theory of Computation turing-machine decidability + – Anurag_s asked Aug 13, 2015 Anurag_s 376 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes no atleast now i can say they don't have one to one correspondance . same language can define more than one problem. one problem can be a subset of another problem so more than one problem can map to more than language for example. all number divisible by 9 will be divisible by 3 also if n>9. so language defining one problem can also define another problem so no one to one correspondance possible Tendua answered Aug 15, 2015 Tendua comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.