How is this result true?

Question

How come L1∩ L2 = (L1' U L2')'

Comments

considering L1 and L2 any two arbitrary sets you may also realise such equations through venn diagram

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@G.K.T May you please draw the Venn diagram and shade the regions and kindly explain?

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hopefully you'll get some realization from this

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@G.K.T Awesome! Thanks

Answer 1

By De-Morgans Law.

Languages are sets.

Comments

@Rishabh Gupta 2 May you please elaborate a bit more by taking some example!

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It will be good if you read it yourself. Consider languages as sets.

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Alright, will do, thanks.

Answer 2

this is same as set operation....

L1'={some +L2 - common in both}

L2'={some +L1-common in both}

(L1+L2)'={which is present in L1 as well as L2(i.e common strings)}