1 votes 1 votes Let f,g:[a,b]→R are two differentiable functions such that f′(a)<g′(a) and f′(b)>g′(b).Then there exists c∈(a,b) such that f′(c)=g′(c). True False mathematics asked Sep 22, 2017 mathematics 136 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.