It's not an easy question as we think about logic and of course not a big also.
"Everybody loves my baby but my baby loves nobody but me" implies "I am my baby." (Please read question 3-4 times).
Let’s try to apply the language of Logic and Propositions that we learned in Coaching Classes/Self Study/B.Tech/M.Tech...etc.
"Everybody loves my baby, but my baby don’t love nobody but me".
Suppose that our universe has one relationship, LOVES and two distinguished individuals, ME and MYBABY.
For example, LOVES(ME, MYBABY) means “I love my baby” and ∃x ~LOVES(x,ME) means "not everybody loves me."
Let the domain for x consist of all people.Translating the proposition “Everybody loves my baby, but my baby don’t love nobody but me" into symbolic logic, we have
(∀x LOVES(x,MYBABY) )∧(∀x LOVES(MYBABY,x) ↔ x=ME)
Since the above conjunction is true , it follows that both propositions
∀x LOVES(x,MYBABY) and ∀x LOVES(MYBABY,x) ↔x =ME
must be true for all x. We can then substitute MYBABY for x to obtain
LOVES(MYBABY, MYBABY)∧(LOVES(MYBABY,MYBABY) ↔ MYBABY=ME)
The truth of the first proposition LOVES(MYBABY,MYBABY) together with the left-to-right implication LOVES(MYBABY,MYBABY)→MYBABY=ME , imply that MYBABY=ME.
We must therefore conclude that individuals referred to as “me” and “My Baby” are one and the same person.
Please refer the below links for more details.
https://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/msg46966.html
http://griceclub.blogspot.in/2010/06/everybody-loves-my-baby-but-my-baby.html