0 votes 0 votes Consider the two functions F(x) = 2 logex G(x) = logex2 Both functions are identical or not?? Set Theory & Algebra discrete-mathematics functions + – akash.dinkar12 asked Nov 21, 2017 • edited Nov 29, 2023 by Hira Thakur akash.dinkar12 470 views answer comment Share Follow See all 11 Comments See all 11 11 Comments reply Show 8 previous comments joshi_nitish commented Nov 22, 2017 reply Follow Share @Rishabh F(x) = 2 logex , here if you take any -ve value of x, then log is not defined for it. G(x) = logex2 , here no problem in taking -ve value of . one more example can be, F(x) = $\frac{1}{x-1}-\frac{1}{x-1}$ G(x) = 0 at first it seems that both F(x) and G(x) have same domain and are euivalent, but F(x) is not defined for x=1, but G(x) is defined everywhere. 6 votes 6 votes Rishabh Gupta 2 commented Nov 22, 2017 reply Follow Share Thanks @joshi_nitish :) 0 votes 0 votes Rupendra Choudhary commented Nov 22, 2017 reply Follow Share Rishabh , never try to simplify a function when you have to talk about it's domain , in that way you may reach to some wrong conclusion , as in this question , if you simplify make sure , both forms are identical. 2 votes 2 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
