One major reason of confusion here is that people are differentiating the determinant in a wrong manner. The differentiation of a determinant is done in the following manner:
- Select a Row
- Differentiate that Row keeping others constant
$\frac{d}{dt}\begin{vmatrix} a_{11}(t) & a_{12}(t) & a_{13}(t) \\ a_{21}(t) & a_{22}(t) & a_{23}(t) \\ a_{31}(t) & a_{32}(t) & a_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix} a'_{11}(t) & a'_{12}(t) & a'_{13}(t) \\ a_{21}(t) & a_{22}(t) & a_{23}(t) \\ a_{31}(t) & a_{32}(t) & a_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}+\begin{vmatrix} a_{11}(t) & a_{12}(t) & a_{13}(t) \\ a'_{21}(t) & a'_{22}(t) & a'_{23}(t) \\ a_{31}(t) & a_{32}(t) & a_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}+\begin{vmatrix} a_{11}(t) & a_{12}(t) & a_{13}(t) \\ a_{21}(t) & a_{22}(t) & a_{23}(t) \\ a'_{31}(t) & a'_{32}(t) & a'_{33}(t) \end{vmatrix}.$
So the differentiation of
$f(\theta) = \begin{vmatrix} sin(\theta) & cos(\theta) & tan(\theta)\\ sin(\frac{\pi}{6}) & cos(\frac{\pi}{6}) & tan(\frac{\pi}{6})\\ sin(\frac{\pi}{3}) & cos(\frac{\pi}{3}) & tan(\frac{\pi}{3})\\ \end{vmatrix}$
represented as $f’(\theta)$ would not have 2 rows zero and would not zero out.