Beladys anamoly

Question

"if an algorithm has stack property then it never falls into Beladys Anomaly"

Is their any simple proof to this? Also I wanna know if it's one way or two way implication. Thanks.

Comments

Yes there is a proper technique to see it, ravindra babu ravula sir's video lecture has the proof. If you have access to his course please refer.

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No in his example also he showed such example where FIFO is not following stack property but its ovbiously possible to find such example where FIFO may be following stack property but the proof he did was proof by contradiction method so he showed only that example of FIFO which violates stack property and causes beladys anomaly but there are of course examples possible where FIFO may follow stack property

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U can find lots of examples, in which stack prop obeys i guess.