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15 votes
15 votes

The limit of $\dfrac{10^{n}}{n!}$ as $n \to \infty$ is.

  1. $0$
  2. $1$
  3. $e$
  4. $10$
  5. $\infty$
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6 Answers

Best answer
26 votes
26 votes

$\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{10^n}{n!}$

$= \dfrac{\overbrace{10 \times 10 \times 10 \times \ldots \times 10 \times 10}^{n \text{ times}}}{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times \dots \times (n-1) \times n}$

$ =\overbrace{\frac{10}{1} \cdot \frac{10}{2} \dots \frac{10}{10}}^{\approx 2755} \cdot \underbrace{\frac{10}{11} \dots \frac{10}{100} \cdot \frac{10}{101}}_{\ll 1} \dots \overbrace{\frac{10}{10000} \cdot \frac{10}{10001}}^{\lll 1} \dots \small \text{ goes forever}$


Now we can see that after the $\frac{10}{10}$ term, all subsequent terms are $<1$, and keep decreasing. As we increase the value of $n$ the product will get close to $0$.

So as $n \to \infty$ $\dfrac{10^n}{n!}\to 0$.

Hence, the answer is option A.

edited by
8 votes
8 votes

To show that the sequence converge, we need to show that the limit of the nth term when n tends to infinity is a constant. 

Usually we can not find limits of factorials, so we need to rewrite our problem a little differently.

 

From that we can conclude:

If we can show that the left hand side and right hand side of the above inequality have the same limit, then the middle expression will have the same limit. (Squeeze theorem or sandwich theorem)

Note that http://www.enotes.com/util/tinymce_math/mathImg.php?%5Cdisplaystyle%5Clim_%7B%7B%7Bn%7D%5Cto%5Cinfty%7D%7D%7B0%7D%3D%7B0%7D

and since 10/11 is less than one we have 

Since the previous two limits equal the same number, then 

http://www.enotes.com/util/tinymce_math/mathImg.php?%5Cdisplaystyle%5Clim_%7B%7B%7Bn%7D%5Cto%5Cinfty%7D%7D%5Cfrac%7B%7B%7B%7B10%7D%7D%5E%7B%7Bn%7D%7D%7D%7D%7B%7B%7B10%7D!%7D%7D%3D%7B0%7D

Hence your sequence converge.

Ref: http://www.enotes.com/homework-help/show-that-sequence-10-n-n-converges-find-its-limit-360310#

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3 votes
3 votes

Let f(n) = n! and g(n) = 10n

as n approaches infinity, f(n) grows faster than g(n) as f(n) is asymptotically larger than g(n).

So as n approaches infinity, [g(n) / f(n)] will approach 0 ...

Answer is 0 

1 votes
1 votes

i think it is 0  because

  10n/n!

= 10n/(nn(1*(1-1/n)*(1-2/n)-----------------------*(1/n)))

=((10/n)*(10/n)................(10/n))*(1/(1*(1-1/n)*(1-2/n)-----------------------*(1/n)))

=0*1/1=0

Answer:

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