Parsers

Question

if a Grammer is LR(0) then will it always be a CLR(1) and LALR(1)

Comments

Yes true.

Answer 1

Given  diagram clearly explains the relationship among types of grammars

If a Grammar is LR(0), then it always will be a SLR(1) and LALR(1) 

Comments

Sir, thank you.

But still i am confused in relation between LL(1) and other grammers{mainly with SLR(1) and LALR(1)}