1 votes 1 votes plz explain this. atul_21 asked Jan 3, 2018 atul_21 553 views answer comment Share Follow See all 5 Comments See all 5 5 Comments reply Anu007 commented Jan 3, 2018 reply Follow Share 6p-1 = 6 mod 3 [ because 6 is divisible by 3] 2p-1 = 1 mod 3 [ 2 is not divisible by 3] 1 votes 1 votes atul_21 commented Jan 3, 2018 reply Follow Share I don't get it sir 0 votes 0 votes Anu007 commented Jan 3, 2018 reply Follow Share ap-1 = a mod p when a is divisible by p and p is prime number ap-1 = 1 mod p when a is not divisible by p and p is prime number 4 votes 4 votes atul_21 commented Jan 3, 2018 reply Follow Share Thanku sir 0 votes 0 votes Prashank commented Oct 13, 2019 i edited by akash.dinkar12 Oct 13, 2019 reply Follow Share @Anu007 why r should not be 0? It is also valid answer? 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.