1 votes 1 votes Is placing address (0) in arg(1) valid ? though the answer is a) but it is confusing me. Because in Ullman too, addresses are placed in arg(2) and operand in arg(1)... Kindly help .. thanks Compiler Design triples + – Pawan Kumar 2 asked Jan 9, 2018 Pawan Kumar 2 275 views answer comment Share Follow See all 4 Comments See all 4 4 Comments reply Ashwin Kulkarni commented Jan 9, 2018 reply Follow Share Sorry but I didn’t get your doubt, but here (0) means the upper equation is used in 2nd one. And hence at that equation value y is assigned. 0 votes 0 votes Pawan Kumar 2 commented Jan 9, 2018 reply Follow Share Sir actually in Ullman addresses have been used only in arg(2) thus i was asking is this valid to used to addresses in arg(1) too? .. I get that solution fits but (0) being used in arg(1) .. is that OK? 0 votes 0 votes Ashwin Kulkarni commented Jan 9, 2018 reply Follow Share Yes it is valid no problem . 1 votes 1 votes Pawan Kumar 2 commented Jan 9, 2018 reply Follow Share ok Sir ... thnk u :) 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.