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in Calculus | 97 views
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answer will be C

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Can you please explain.
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I found this but it's only written that lim x tends to a g(x) should not be 0 so it may be A or B

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@Nishtha3121996 I marked 'a' but it was wrong. Answer given is 'C' only.

Option C is the correct answer.

if $_{x \to a}^{lim}$$\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} exist then neither _{x \to a}^{lim} f(x) nor _{x \to a}^{lim}g(x) may exist. eg:- Let f(x) = _{x \to 0}^{lim}$$\frac{x}{|x|}$ and g(x) = $_{x \to 0}^{lim}$$\frac{x}{|x|} Here for both f(x) and g(x) the limit does not exist since LHL \neq RHL. But _{x \to 0}^{lim}$$\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1$

by Boss (17.2k points)

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