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+3 votes
97 views

in Calculus by Active (1.7k points) | 97 views
0

answer will be C

0
Can you please explain.
0

I found this but it's only written that lim x tends to a g(x) should not be 0 so it may be A or B 

0

@Nishtha3121996 I marked 'a' but it was wrong. Answer given is 'C' only.

1 Answer

0 votes

Option C is the correct answer.

if $_{x \to a}^{lim}$$\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$ exist then neither $_{x \to a}^{lim}$ f(x) nor $_{x \to a}^{lim}$g(x) may  exist.

eg:-

Let f(x) = $_{x \to 0}^{lim}$$\frac{x}{|x|}$ and g(x) = $_{x \to 0}^{lim}$$\frac{x}{|x|}$

Here for both f(x) and g(x) the limit does not exist since LHL $\neq$ RHL.

But $_{x \to 0}^{lim}$$\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1$

by Boss (17.2k points)

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