15 votes 15 votes If $pqr \ne 0$ and $p^{-x}=\dfrac{1}{q},q^{-y}=\dfrac{1}{r},r^{-z}=\dfrac{1}{p},$ what is the value of the product $xyz$ ? $-1$ $\dfrac{1}{pqr}$ $1$ $pqr$ Quantitative Aptitude gatecse-2018 quantitative-aptitude ratio-proportions 2-marks logarithms + – gatecse asked Feb 14, 2018 • retagged Dec 30, 2022 by Hira Thakur gatecse 7.5k views answer comment Share Follow See all 4 Comments See all 4 4 Comments reply sumit goyal 1 commented Feb 4, 2018 reply Follow Share got 1 0 votes 0 votes ADITYA CHAURASIYA 5 commented Feb 4, 2018 reply Follow Share same here ans should be 1 0 votes 0 votes dm4006 commented Feb 4, 2018 reply Follow Share you have type wrong question p−x=1/q q−y=1/r r−z=1/p 0 votes 0 votes Sumit Rana 1 commented Feb 16, 2018 reply Follow Share pqr !=0, p^-x = 1/q, q^-y = 1/r, r^-z = 1/p Taking log both sides, -x(log p) = -log q, -y(log q) = -log r, -z(log r) = -log p => x = log q/ log p => y = log r/ log q => z = log p/ log r multiplying x,y and z, (x)(y)(z) = 1 7 votes 7 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Simplest way possible! sidlewis answered Nov 25, 2018 sidlewis comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes c. Ray Tomlinson answered Sep 7, 2023 Ray Tomlinson comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.