6 votes 6 votes There are four machines and it is known that exactly two of them are faulty. They are tested one by one in a random order till both the faulty machines are identified. The probability that only two tests are required is $\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)$ $\left(\dfrac{1}{3}\right)$ $\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right)$ $\left(\dfrac{1}{6}\right)$ Probability isi2017-mma engineering-mathematics probability + – jjayantamahata asked Mar 28, 2018 • edited May 11, 2019 by akash.dinkar12 jjayantamahata 2.8k views answer comment Share Follow See all 5 Comments See all 5 5 Comments reply Show 2 previous comments Anand. commented May 16, 2018 reply Follow Share @sukanya :given answer is wrong. correct answer will be $\frac{1}{3}$ 0 votes 0 votes chauhansunil20th commented Dec 24, 2018 reply Follow Share $\frac{2C1*1C1}{4C2} = \frac{2}{6} = \frac{1}{3}$ 0 votes 0 votes Punit Sharma commented Jan 24, 2019 reply Follow Share Out of 4 , it's given that exactly two are faulty therefore two are non faulty now, ways to permute them will be 4!/(2!*2!) = 6 so total sample space contain 6 items now probab. that in two test we detect the faulty machines = (probab. of detecting two faulty m/c in 1st two tests) OR (probab. of detecting two unfaulty m/c in 1st two tests) = (1/6) + (1/6) = (2/6) =(1/3) 2 votes 2 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 votes 1 votes Without loss of generality. There are $C(4,2)$ = $6$ ways to identify two of the machines. Only two tests are required. Thus, $p$= $2/6$=$1/3$ amanpandey007 answered Apr 2, 2019 amanpandey007 comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.