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Consider a hash table with $n$ buckets, where external (overflow) chaining is used to resolve collisions. The hash function is such that the probability that a key value is hashed to a particular bucket is $\frac{1}{n}$. The hash table is initially empty and $K$ distinct values are inserted in the table.

  1. What is the probability that bucket number $1$ is empty after the $K^{th}$ insertion?
  2. What is the probability that no collision has occurred in any of the $K$ insertions?
  3. What is the probability that the first collision occurs at the $K^{th}$ insertion?
asked in DS by Veteran (59.5k points)
edited by | 1.7k views
0
c part ?

2 Answers

+21 votes
Best answer
  1. probability that other buckets are selected $= (n-1)/n$
    this should happen $k$ times and each of $k$ events are independent so $(n-1)^k/n^k$
     
  2. when $k=1$ prob of no collision $= n/n$
    for $k=2$ prob of no collision $= n/n * (n-1)/n$
    for $k=k$ prob of no collision $= n/n * (n-1)/n * (n-2)/n ... * (n-k+1)/n$ for $k<=n$
    for $k>n$ prob $= 0$
     
  3. prob of collision at $k=1   = (k-1)/n$
    prob of collision at $k=2   = n/n * (k-1)/n$
    prob of collision at $k=3   = n/n * (n-1)/n * (k-1)/n$
    prob of collision at $k=k   = n/n * (n-1)/n * (n-2)/n ... * 2/n * (k-1)/n $  for  $k<=n$
    for $k>n$  prob $= 1$
answered by Active (3.8k points)
edited by
0

for k=2 prob of no collision = n/n * (n-1)/n

Why is n/n being multiplied?

+1

please xplain part c too

+14
P(Collision at the Kth iteration) = P(No probability till the (K-1)th iteration) * P(Collision at the Kth iteration)

= n/n * (n-1)/n * (n-2)/n ................. (n-(k-2))/n * (k-1)/n
0
@ravi_ssj4

I understood your point. But can't figure out c) in the selected answer. In the selected answer, c) is different.
0
@Habibkhan, here the (c) part as suggested by ravi_ssj4 is correct and not the one in the best answer, right? Please help.
+2

I think c part is:-

 n/n * (n-1)/n * (n-2)/n ...  (k-1)/n, 

I did not understand how * 2/n  is there in c option?(n/n * (n-1)/n * (n-2)/n ... * 2/n * (k-1)/n for k<=n)

Answer for c part by ravi_ssj4  is also correct

0
Yeah, that's what I said. I think there's an error in the Best Answer. Answer by ravi_ssj4 looks correct not the Best Answer.
0
actually a more general answer for 'c' should be: (n/n) * (n-1)/n * .....* (n-(k-2))/n * (k-1)/n
0
part c is very nicely explain thanks @danish
0
for partc if k=3 then there will be two possibility of collision (either at the location of first inserted element or at the location of second inserted element ) so for Kth insertion there will be (k-1) positions where collision will be possible so probability will be as specified in best answer
+3 votes

We can redefine the above problem using definition of function

we have two set , A={1,2,...k} B={1,2,....n}   

Now a hash function maps one element of set A to exactly one element of set B.

Total Mappings=No.of functions from set A to Set B=n^k

1. probability that bucket number 1 is empty after the Kth insertion

           Total functions from set A to set B-{1}/All possible functions=(n-1)^k/n^k

2. probability that no collision has occurred in any of the K insertions

                      Total one-to-one function from set A to set B/All possible functions=P(n,k)/n^k           ,P means permutation

3.probability that the first collision occurs at the Kth insertion

 (Total one-to-one function from set A-{k} to set B)*(No of ways kth element can map such that collision occur)/All possible functions=p(n,k-1)*(k-1)/n^k

answered by Active (4.1k points)

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