(a) A function from A to B must map every element in A. Being one-one, each element must map to a unique element in B. So, for $n$ elements in A, we have $m$ choices in B and so we can have $^m\mathbb{P}_n$ functions.
(b) Continuing from (a) part. Here, we are forced to fix $f(i) = 1$. So, one element from A and B gone with $n$ possibilities for the element in A and 1 possibility for that in B, and we get $n \times$ $^{m-1}\mathbb{P}_{n-1}$ such functions.
(c) $f(i) < f(j)$ means only one order for the $n$ selection permutations from B is valid. So, the answer from (a) becomes $^m\mathbb{C}_n$ here.