SELF DOUBT TOC MOORE TO MEALY CONVERSION

Question

GIVEN A MOOORE MACHINE  WITH N STATES THE CORRESPONDING EQUIVALENT MEALY MACHINE HAS MAXIMUM OF N STATES ............

I THINK IT SHOULD BE FALSE BECZ SAYING MAXIMUM N STATES IS WRONG BECZ THERE IS NO CHANGE IN STATES WHILE CONVERTING MOORE TO MEALY.?? BUT IS GIVEN AS TRUE ...PLEASE CHECK??

Comments

sorry bro... i didn't find atleast your name also... ok i will update

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OK FINE ...lets hope for best some interpretation are really confusing

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I guess its True, since they are not explicitly saying anything about the lower bound. 

And if you are thinking that it would be false since it cannot have less than N states, in this case you are wrong as well for it can have exactly N states. What I mean to say is that False is a wrong answer in itself if you think about it.

Answer 1

Yes U are right while converting Moore to Mealey the number of state never changes it remains same as what was in moore machine itself.

Now coming to point of mealey to moore conversion here the number of state may increase and in worst case if there are M state and N input in mealey machine then while converting to moore it can be M*N.

Comments

YA IT MEANS SHOULD BE FALSE??

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Yeah

Answer 2

Once we convert from moore to mealy there is a possiblity that some states give the same result so it is of no use to take them separately.We can collapse such redundant states.That's why we Says MAX N states because less that N is also possible by collapsing redundant states.