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in Theory of Computation 126 views
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Not in the syllabus but anyway, all of them are p problems
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Given is option a

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L1:{<M> | there exist a Turing machine M' such that <M>$\neq$<M'> and L(M) = L(M')} How this problem becomes trivial? and if it non-trivial then please explain why is that so. According to my understanding, non-trivial properties are the one where a language ... and if it is then is it okay to say M1=M2 because they are kind of same machine but other one is just with some non deterministic nature.
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asked Sep 21, 2018 in Theory of Computation aambazinga 96 views
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Here is my analysis. P1: When we bound the number of steps a turing machine can tape, the total number of input possible that can be taken by such turing machine becomes finite and by running TM in an interleaved mode I can decide whether TM M halts on x within k steps. So, ... hence I can decide P3. Hence, P3 is decidable.->REC. So, I think here answer must be 1. Please let me know what's right.
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asked Oct 20, 2019 in Theory of Computation Lakshman Patel RJIT 64 views
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