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I have a doubt it may be stupid though.

know that if ∑m (1,3,5,6) then its equivalent  POS form is =  πM (0,2,4,7)

But my doubt is say i need to represent  7, in SOP i write ABC in POS i write (A'+B'+C')
∑m (1,3,5,6) = A'B'C + A'BC+AB'C+ABC'

if i take complement of it = Duality + complement every literal then it becomes :

(A+B+C')(A+B'+C')(A'+B+C')(A'+B'+C) = πM(1,3,5,6)

then why we say that SOP is complement of POS and why ∑m (1,3,5,6) != πM(1,3,5,6) ? as according to above they seems to be equal.

1 Answer

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SOP and POS are not complement of each other ...

They are just a way to represent the Values where function have value 1 or 0 as in digital logic we have either 0 or 1 ..have a look at this ...its NPTL refrence

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