0 votes 0 votes Given that the function f and g , fog is composition of function, also f and fog is one-to-one functions , then what can be said about g ? A) g is one-to-one function B)can't say anything about g hitendra singh asked Oct 9, 2018 hitendra singh 321 views answer comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply Vikas Verma commented Oct 9, 2018 reply Follow Share A) 0 votes 0 votes hitendra singh commented Oct 9, 2018 reply Follow Share how ? Can you elaborate? 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes If suppose g is not one-one then for x1!=x2 we have g(x1)=g(x2)=b Now as f is one-one f(b)=f(b) -> f(g(x1))=f(g(x2)) with x1!=x2 which contradicts as fog is one one so g should be one one Soumya Tiwari answered Oct 29, 2018 Soumya Tiwari comment Share Follow See 1 comment See all 1 1 comment reply hitendra singh commented Nov 2, 2018 reply Follow Share how it contradicts fog is one -one ? 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.