9 votes 9 votes Consider a well functioning clock where the hour, minute and the seconds needles are exactly at zero. How much time later will the minutes needle be exactly one minute ahead ($1/60$ th of the circumference) of the hours needle and the seconds needle again exactly at zero? Hint: When the desired event happens both the hour needle and the minute needle have moved an integer multiple of $1/60$ th of the circumference. $144$ minutes $66$ minutes $96$ minutes $72$ minutes $132$ minutes Quantitative Aptitude tifr2013 quantitative-aptitude clock-time + – makhdoom ghaya asked Nov 5, 2015 edited Aug 17, 2020 by soujanyareddy13 makhdoom ghaya 1.7k views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Please correct me if I am wrong. I think answer is (b) 66 min. Reason : Here it is given current time is 12:00 pm. After 66 min , time will be 1:06 p.m . So , hour's hand will be at 1 and minute's hand will be exactly 1 place ahead. worst_engineer answered Nov 6, 2015 worst_engineer comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply Arjun commented Nov 6, 2015 reply Follow Share At 1:06 hours handle will be slightly over 1. 0 votes 0 votes Himanshu1 commented Nov 21, 2015 reply Follow Share Option (e) is correct 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.