0 votes 0 votes In the Rosen it is mentioned that P → Q is same as Q unless (negation P). Can someone please explain this...I m not getting the intuition behind this! himgta asked Nov 26, 2018 himgta 343 views answer comment Share Follow See all 4 Comments See all 4 4 Comments reply Mk Utkarsh commented Nov 26, 2018 reply Follow Share A unless B is $A \vee B$ now what is $Q$ unless $\neg P$? $Q \vee \neg P \equiv P \rightarrow Q$ 0 votes 0 votes himgta commented Nov 26, 2018 reply Follow Share A unless B is A∨B......How? sir plz explain by taking the statements! 0 votes 0 votes Mk Utkarsh commented Nov 26, 2018 reply Follow Share https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1789229/why-is-a-unless-b-equivalent-to-a-lor-b 1 votes 1 votes himgta commented Nov 27, 2018 reply Follow Share @Mk Utkarsh Do we have to byheart these terminologies? Like there are many forms of P → Q.....Q when P. Q only if P?? 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 1 votes 1 votes One way to write p -> q is q if p It is given q unless ~p == q if not not p (unless means if not) q if not not p ==> q if p ==> p -> q tusharp answered Nov 26, 2018 • selected Nov 26, 2018 by Shaik Masthan tusharp comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply himgta commented Nov 27, 2018 reply Follow Share @tusharp Do we have to byheart these terminologies? Like there are many forms of P → Q? 0 votes 0 votes tusharp commented Nov 27, 2018 reply Follow Share Even I was in same dilemma :) . Solve Rosen exercise. It will not take much time and you will tackle logic questions very efficiently. 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
