0 votes 0 votes Answer : Option A Doubt : 0 repeated n-1 times and a single 1 , then how <0,n> ? HeadShot asked Dec 11, 2018 HeadShot 399 views answer comment Share Follow See all 5 Comments See all 5 5 Comments reply Show 2 previous comments Jaideep Bankoti commented Dec 11, 2018 reply Follow Share I dont' know if this might work in every case but , Determinant is clearly 0, and trace of given matrix is(1+1+1+....+1=n). so , sum of eigen values must be n and product must be 0. which holds true only for a. 0 votes 0 votes HeadShot commented Dec 11, 2018 reply Follow Share @Mk Utkarsh thats really cool. thanx 0 votes 0 votes HeadShot commented Dec 11, 2018 reply Follow Share @arvin yeah, actually i was thinking of transformation while solving but then i remembered that its invalid. 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.