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+1 vote
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An $\epsilon$ free LL(1) grammar is also a SLR(1) and hence LALR(1) and LR(1) too.

Is this statement true ?
in Compiler Design by Loyal (8.4k points) | 60 views
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I don't think this statement is true
+1

I think the statement is True.

See the discussion here.

https://gateoverflow.in/945/gate2003-57?show=276990

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yes it is true

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