+1 vote
60 views
An $\epsilon$ free LL(1) grammar is also a SLR(1) and hence LALR(1) and LR(1) too.

Is this statement true ?
| 60 views
0
I don't think this statement is true
+1

I think the statement is True.

See the discussion here.

https://gateoverflow.in/945/gate2003-57?show=276990

0
yes it is true

1