0 votes 0 votes $\lim_{x\rightarrow \frac{\pi }{2}}cosx^{cosx}$ can we straight away say $0^{0}=0$ ? Calculus calculus + – manisha11 asked Jan 5, 2019 • edited Jan 5, 2019 by srestha manisha11 392 views answer comment Share Follow See all 6 Comments See all 6 6 Comments reply Show 3 previous comments arvin commented Jan 5, 2019 reply Follow Share for such questions take log both sides and than proceed by breaking rhs into more simpler parts which will be log(cosx)/(1/cosx) again in indeterminate form so differentiate both numerator and denominator and than put the value of lim x->pie/2 . it will get reduced log y=0 y= e^0 = 1 answer... 2 votes 2 votes manisha11 commented Jan 5, 2019 reply Follow Share THANKSS 0 votes 0 votes Nandkishor3939 commented Jan 5, 2019 reply Follow Share Nice approach ! 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes Yeah when x-->0 then cos(x) approches 1 i.e. value of cos(x)^cos(x) will be 1^1 = 1 Nandkishor3939 answered Jan 5, 2019 Nandkishor3939 comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.