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Which of the following is TRUE regarding LL(0) grammar?

  1. We can have a LL(0) grammar for any regular language
  2. We can have a LL(0) grammar for a regular language only if it does not contain empty string
  3. We can have a LL(0) grammar for any regular language if and only if it has prefix property
  4. We can have a LL(0) grammar for only single string languages
in Compiler Design by Veteran (424k points) | 148 views
+5

@Arjun sir, i think the answer is D.

LL(0) means the grammar which can be generated with 0 look-a-heads.

So we have to generate a string even without looking at the first production symbol. this is only possible if there is only 1 string that the grammar can generate.

example:

S -> abc

now to generate the language of the grammar we need not even look at the sarting symbol 'a', because the only string it can generate is 'abc'

 

+3
Yes. Or no string also. That is why we don't have a real LL(0) parser :)
+1
sir, please explain point no 3 for both LL(o) and LL(1) grammar.
0

@OneZero  Can you explain option C or any article where I can read more about prefix property ?

only if it has prefix property

Did you discarded it because if a grammer has same prefix and there is no disjoint it won't be LL(1)?

0

@OneZero for LL(0) , 0 look-aheads

S->abc or S->epsilon 

Here null atring also be there

@Arjun sir, am i right ?

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