+1 vote
17 views
Show that $(p \rightarrow q) \rightarrow (r \rightarrow s)$ and $(p \rightarrow r) \rightarrow (q \rightarrow s)$ are not logically equivalent.

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selected
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So we can solved this way without using logical and or operator?
0
Yes , we can solve using truth table also.

But it is time cansuming .

+1 vote
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+1 vote
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