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Show that $(p \rightarrow q) \rightarrow (r \rightarrow s) $ and $(p \rightarrow r) \rightarrow (q \rightarrow s)$ are not logically equivalent.
asked in Mathematical Logic by Boss (10.7k points) | 19 views

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...........

answered by Boss (33.9k points)
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So we can solved this way without using logical and or operator?
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Yes , we can solve using truth table also.

But it is time cansuming .

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