1 votes 1 votes Show that $(p \rightarrow q) \rightarrow (r \rightarrow s) $ and $(p \rightarrow r) \rightarrow (q \rightarrow s)$ are not logically equivalent. Mathematical Logic kenneth-rosen discrete-mathematics propositional-logic mathematical-logic + – Pooja Khatri asked Mar 16, 2019 Pooja Khatri 541 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 2 votes 2 votes ........... abhishekmehta4u answered Mar 16, 2019 • selected Mar 16, 2019 by Lakshman Bhaiya abhishekmehta4u comment Share Follow See all 2 Comments See all 2 2 Comments reply Sona Barman commented Mar 18, 2019 reply Follow Share So we can solved this way without using logical and or operator? 0 votes 0 votes abhishekmehta4u commented Mar 18, 2019 reply Follow Share Yes , we can solve using truth table also. But it is time cansuming . 0 votes 0 votes Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes In (p$\rightarrow$q)$\rightarrow$(r$\rightarrow$s) $\not\equiv$ (p$\rightarrow$r)$\rightarrow$(q$\rightarrow$s) If p=F, q=F, r=T, s=F then LHS is false and RHS is true. Hence,they are not logically equivalent. pavan singh answered Jan 22, 2023 pavan singh comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.