1 votes 1 votes Show that $p\downarrow q$ is logically equivalent to $\sim(p \vee q).$ Mathematical Logic kenneth-rosen discrete-mathematics mathematical-logic propositional-logic + – Pooja Khatri asked Mar 16, 2019 Pooja Khatri 576 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 1 votes 1 votes ....... abhishekmehta4u answered Mar 16, 2019 • selected Mar 16, 2019 by Lakshman Bhaiya abhishekmehta4u comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes ${\color{Red}{p\downarrow q\equiv\sim(p \vee q)} }$ we can simply use the truth table $p$ $q$ $p\vee q$ $\sim(p\vee q)$ $p\downarrow q$ T T T F F T F T F F F T T F F F F F T T Lakshman Bhaiya answered Mar 16, 2019 Lakshman Bhaiya comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
0 votes 0 votes pavan singh answered Jan 23, 2023 pavan singh comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.