0 votes 0 votes Show that $\forall x P(x) \vee \forall x Q(x)$ and $\forall x \forall y (P(x) \vee Q(y))$, where all quantifiers have the same nonempty domain, are logically equivalent . (The new variable $y$ is used to combine the quantifications correctly.) Mathematical Logic discrete-mathematics kenneth-rosen mathematical-logic propositional-logic + – Pooja Khatri asked Mar 19, 2019 Pooja Khatri 222 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.