0 votes 0 votes Show that the function $f(x)=e^x $ from the set of real numbers to the set of real numbers is not invertible, but if the codomain is restricted to the set of positive real numbers, the resulting function is invertible Set Theory & Algebra kenneth-rosen discrete-mathematics set-theory&algebra + – Pooja Khatri asked Apr 9, 2019 Pooja Khatri 208 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.