2 votes 2 votes Let $f$ be a function from $A$ to $B$. Let $S$ and $T$ be subsets of $B$. Show that $f^{-1}(S \cup T) = f^{-1}(S) \cup f^{-1}(T)$ $f^{-1}(S \cap T) = f^{-1}(S) \cap f^{-1}(T)$ Set Theory & Algebra kenneth-rosen discrete-mathematics set-theory&algebra + – Pooja Khatri asked Apr 9, 2019 Pooja Khatri 188 views answer comment Share Follow See all 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.