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https://gateoverflow.in/968/gate2003-85

How in the above question the functional dependency (date of birth -> age) is a partial functional dependency. (As told in the selected answer for this question)

Because according to navathe the definition of partial functional dependency is

A functional dependency X -> Y is a partial dependency if some attribute A belongs to X can be removed from X and the dependency still holds; that is, for some A belongs to X (X - {A}) -> Y.

edited

I dont have any problem regarding the schema is in 1nf or not I know that it is in 1nf.

My problem is that in the answer to this question it is written that the dependency (DOB -> age) is a partial dependency.

But if you see the definition given in navathe (written in the question) then (DOB-> age) is not a partial functional dependency.

Rather I think {DOB, NAME} -> age is a partial functional dependency.

@Kushagra Chatterjee

u r right.

moreover,  Here keys are (Roll_Number, Course_Number,DOB) or (Name, Course_No, DOB)

right??

for this FD $\color{red}{\text{\{ Date_Of_Birth} \to \text{Age\}}}$, all the candidate keys are holding partial functional dependency.

So, $\color{violet}{\text{ ( Date_Of_Birth, Name ) }} \& \color{purple}{\text{ ( Date_Of_Birth, Roll_number)}}$ -- both of these are partial functional dependency as $\color{blue}{\text{Date_Of_Birth}}$ is in both of the keys.